Group 10: Communication with Management & TCWG

30 original practice MCQs. 2 marks each. Separate practice and test sets.

Original practice, not ICAI questions, official suggested answers or an official examiner scheme. Equivalent correct work is credited within the stated caps. Public practice availability is not full official question-bank completion.

Not scored yet.

AUD-G10-P001 · 2 marks

A charitable trust has no company board but trustees oversee financial reporting. Who should the auditor identify for governance communication?

Explanation

Correct answer A: Appropriate persons in the actual governance structure, considering their roles.

SA 260 paragraph 11/A1-A4 require role-sensitive determination; company titles do not define every entity governance structure.

AUD-G10-P002 · 2 marks

The audit committee chair receives a complex matter, but remaining governance members may lack full information. What is appropriate?

Explanation

Correct answer A: Determine whether communication with the governing body is also needed.

SA 260 paragraph 12/A48 require consideration of governing-body coverage and full balanced information, not automatic sufficiency of one recipient.

AUD-G10-P003 · 2 marks

All governance persons also manage, but only one received the required matters. What must the auditor establish before avoiding repeat communication?

Explanation

Correct answer B: That management-role communication adequately informs all relevant governance persons.

SA 260 paragraph 13 has an adequate-coverage condition even where all roles overlap.

AUD-G10-P004 · 2 marks

Governance says the audit removes its responsibility to oversee statements. What should be communicated?

Explanation

Correct answer D: The audit does not relieve management or governance of their responsibilities.

SA 260 paragraph 14 distinguishes auditor opinion responsibility from entity preparation and oversight duties.

AUD-G10-P005 · 2 marks

Management sends governance a summary of required audit matters before the auditor meeting. What changes?

Explanation

Correct answer B: It may affect auditor communication form/timing, but does not relieve the auditor duty.

SA 260 paragraph 5 preserves both responsibilities while recognising form/timing effects.

AUD-G10-P006 · 2 marks

Governance wants to understand why a risk receives special consideration. What belongs in the planned overview?

Explanation

Correct answer C: Communication about significant risks identified by the auditor.

SA 260 paragraph 15/A12 support useful significant-risk discussion without a guarantee or transfer of planning responsibility.

AUD-G10-P007 · 2 marks

After a planning discussion, governance insists it now owns the audit strategy. Which statement is right?

Explanation

Correct answer B: The auditor retains sole responsibility for establishing strategy and plan.

SA 260 A15 retains auditor responsibility while permitting useful dialogue.

AUD-G10-P008 · 2 marks

A proposed overview tells managing directors exactly when surprise procedures will occur. What is the main concern?

Explanation

Correct answer D: Excess procedural predictability may compromise audit effectiveness.

SA 260 A16 calls for care, particularly where governance members manage; it does not remove the overview requirement.

AUD-G10-P009 · 2 marks

A policy is acceptable under the framework but not most appropriate in the entity circumstances. What should the auditor do where significant?

Explanation

Correct answer C: Explain the qualitative view and why that acceptable practice is less appropriate here.

SA 260 paragraph 16(a) expressly includes this circumstance. Communication should explain a supported view rather than invent a prohibition.

AUD-G10-P010 · 2 marks

Management refuses necessary information and imposes a very brief completion period. What may need communicating?

Explanation

Correct answer D: Significant difficulties encountered and their actual implications.

SA 260 paragraph 16(b)/A21 cover difficulties; report implications require separate evaluated facts.

AUD-G10-P011 · 2 marks

Non-managing governance persons are not told which written representations the auditor is requesting. Which matter is missed?

Explanation

Correct answer B: SA26016(c)(ii) communication of requested written representations.

The all-governance-managing exception is not supplied; communicate what is requested without implying it is already obtained.

AUD-G10-P012 · 2 marks

Significant findings were discussed orally, but complexity makes oral communication inadequate in professional judgment. What is required?

Explanation

Correct answer B: Communicate the significant findings in writing.

SA 260 paragraph 19 makes significant-findings writing conditional on oral inadequacy. This differs from specific unconditional written requirements.

AUD-G10-P013 · 2 marks

For a listed entity, relevant network-firm relationships are omitted because the main firm has none. What is best?

Explanation

Correct answer B: Include relevant relationships and other matters reasonably thought to bear on independence.

SA 260 paragraph 17 covers firm/network/entity matters within its scope; relevance evaluation is not an automatic breach conclusion.

AUD-G10-P014 · 2 marks

A listed entity independence statement was given only orally. Which requirement remains unmet?

Explanation

Correct answer B: The required independence communication in writing.

SA 260 paragraph 20 requires paragraph17 independence communication in writing; form alone does not determine an opinion.

AUD-G10-P015 · 2 marks

A significant difficulty can be overcome if governance acts now. What is a sound timing choice?

Explanation

Correct answer D: Communicate as soon as practicable to enable useful intervention.

SA 260 paragraph 21/A49(b) apply timely circumstance-sensitive communication, not a universal fixed deadline.

AUD-G10-P016 · 2 marks

A governance email was delivered, but members never understand the matter or respond. What does delivery establish?

Explanation

Correct answer A: Receipt alone does not establish adequate two-way communication.

SA 260 paragraph 22/A51 evaluate understanding, openness and actions, not transport status alone.

AUD-G10-P017 · 2 marks

Oral communication is documented only as "meeting held" with no matters or recipient. What is needed?

Explanation

Correct answer A: Document matters communicated, when and to whom.

SA 260 paragraph 23 requires these substantive facts; an occurrence label is insufficient.

AUD-G10-P018 · 2 marks

An incidental accountability issue is communicated. Which scope statement is appropriate?

Explanation

Correct answer C: Identification was incidental to the audit and no procedures searched for other such matters.

SA 260 A34-A36 distinguish supplementary information from separate comprehensive assurance.

AUD-G10-P019 · 2 marks

A third party says a governance letter automatically provides it assurance. Which response is sound?

Explanation

Correct answer A: Consider intended-use/non-reliance and distribution limits; it was not prepared with that party in mind.

SA 260 A43-A45 address purpose, restrictions and possible consent. Neither receipt nor request creates assurance or lawful disclosure.

AUD-G10-P020 · 2 marks

A necessary prevention control is missing although no current error is found. Which statement is correct?

Explanation

Correct answer A: A deficiency can exist without an identified misstatement.

SA 265 paragraph 6-8/A5 distinguish existence/significance from actual identified error; classify using supported judgment.

AUD-G10-P021 · 2 marks

Several weaknesses interact in the same disclosure. What should be evaluated?

Explanation

Correct answer D: Whether their combination constitutes a significant deficiency.

SA 265 paragraph 8/A8 address combination and judgment, without an automatic number rule.

AUD-G10-P022 · 2 marks

An identified significant deficiency is communicated only orally to governance. What is missing?

Explanation

Correct answer C: Timely written significant-deficiency communication to governance.

SA 265 paragraph 9 requires writing; quantification and exhaustive control testing are not prerequisites.

AUD-G10-P023 · 2 marks

A significant deficiency questions management integrity. What is the management-communication qualifier?

Explanation

Correct answer B: Direct communication to management may be inappropriate, without removing required governance writing.

SA 265 paragraph 10(a)/A20 qualify management communication; SA 265 paragraph 9 governance writing remains.

AUD-G10-P024 · 2 marks

An other deficiency merits management attention and has never been communicated. What form may be suitable?

Explanation

Correct answer A: Appropriate oral communication can satisfy the other-deficiency communication.

SA 265 paragraph 10(b)/A23 allow oral form for these other deficiencies; appropriate attention and audience still matter.

AUD-G10-P025 · 2 marks

A previously communicated significant deficiency remains unremedied. What follows?

Explanation

Correct answer C: Current communication is still needed and may reference the previous communication.

SA 265 A17 permits repeating or referencing description but not silence merely because it was reported before.

AUD-G10-P026 · 2 marks

Governance refuses remedy because costs outweigh benefits. Does this remove significant-deficiency communication?

Explanation

Correct answer A: No; management/governance remedial cost-benefit choices do not cancel auditor communication.

SA 265 A16 retains paragraph9 duty while entity decision-makers evaluate remedy costs and benefits.

AUD-G10-P027 · 2 marks

A letter describes a significant deficiency but no exact loss can be measured. What is correct?

Explanation

Correct answer D: Explain potential effects; quantification is not required.

SA 265 paragraph 11(a)/A28 distinguish explaining potential effects from mandatory quantification.

AUD-G10-P028 · 2 marks

Management gives a proposed remedy and asks the auditor to say it is implemented. No implementation work was done. What is best?

Explanation

Correct answer D: Describe the proposal accurately and distinguish it from verified implementation.

SA 265 A28 permits response/verification information; a proposal is not evidence of implementation or effectiveness.

AUD-G10-P029 · 2 marks

Governance members lack industry experience. What affects appropriate letter detail?

Explanation

Correct answer C: Governance composition, entity complexity and the nature of deficiencies.

SA 265 A15 requires circumstance-sensitive detail, not a fixed length or audience exclusion.

AUD-G10-P030 · 2 marks

A significant-deficiency letter in a financial-statement-only audit claims every entity weakness was found. What correction is needed?

Explanation

Correct answer C: State the reported matters are limited to identified deficiencies concluded sufficiently important for governance attention.

SA 265 paragraph 11(b) sets the context; it neither establishes completeness assurance nor removes other SAs work requirements.

Official standards: SA260 Revised, SA265.