Group 10: Communication with Management & TCWG
30 original test MCQs. 2 marks each. Separate practice and test sets.
Original practice, not ICAI questions, official suggested answers or an official examiner scheme. Equivalent correct work is credited within the stated caps. Public practice availability is not full official question-bank completion.
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AUD-G10-T001 · 2 marksA group has different governing bodies in its components. The auditor proposes copying the parent recipient list without understanding component roles. Which review is best?
Explanation
Correct answer D: Determine appropriate governance persons in the relevant actual structure.
SA 260 paragraph 11/A1-A4 requires actual recipient determination; structure differences cannot be replaced by title matching.
AUD-G10-T002 · 2 marksA committee has a clearly defined remit for one issue; the full governing body retains responsibility for a different issue. What is best?
Explanation
Correct answer B: Assess audience separately for each matter and whether governing-body communication is also needed.
SA 260 paragraphs 11-12/A5-A7 require matter-sensitive governance coverage, not universal committee sufficiency.
AUD-G10-T003 · 2 marksEvery governor manages, and one joint briefing demonstrably informed all relevant persons. What is the best treatment of the same required matters?
Explanation
Correct answer C: No repeat is needed solely to relabel the same persons as governance.
SA 260 paragraph 13 avoids unnecessary repetition under its conditions, not future communication or documentation duties.
AUD-G10-T004 · 2 marksA team designs a separate exhaustive search for every strategic issue solely because SA260 requires specific audit communications. Which claim is correct?
Explanation
Correct answer A: The SA does not require specific procedures to identify every other matter to communicate.
SA 260 paragraph 6 limits extra search obligations; it does not remove other audit work or required known-matter communication.
AUD-G10-T005 · 2 marksGovernance asks for additional procedures on a concern during planning. What follows?
Explanation
Correct answer C: Consider the request in planning while retaining auditor responsibility for the strategy and plan.
SA 260 A11/A14-A15 support useful requests/dialogue without a transfer of audit responsibility or a guarantee.
AUD-G10-T006 · 2 marksAn initial accounting disagreement disappears after additional relevant facts resolve the incomplete-information difference. Which statement about significant management-disagreement communication is best?
Explanation
Correct answer D: Do not automatically classify the resolved preliminary difference as the significant disagreement example.
SA 260 A22 excludes initial differences from incomplete facts later resolved by additional information from that example; assess other requirements on actual facts.
AUD-G10-T007 · 2 marksA planned report circumstance matters to governance oversight but the final report is not yet settled. What is appropriate?
Explanation
Correct answer C: Communicate the relevant circumstance accurately without inventing the final opinion.
SA 260 paragraph 16(d) requires relevant report-form/content circumstances; communication is not an automatic opinion determination.
AUD-G10-T008 · 2 marksFor a listed entity, required fee scope contains firm audit fees Rs8 lakh, firm non-audit Rs2 lakh and network non-audit fees Rs3 lakh to a controlled component. Assuming these are all relevant fees, what total and presentation is appropriate?
Explanation
Correct answer C: Rs13 lakh, allocated to categories useful for assessing independence effects.
SA 260 paragraph 17 includes firm/network audit/non-audit services to entity/controlled components. Supplied sum8+2+3=13, not a threshold or breach finding.
AUD-G10-T009 · 2 marksA listed-entity independence schedule lists fees and relevant relationships but omits safeguards actually applied against identified threats. What is missing?
Explanation
Correct answer A: The related safeguards applied to eliminate threats or reduce them to an acceptable level.
SA 260 paragraph 17(b) addresses related safeguards; complete communication is not an unlimited independence guarantee.
AUD-G10-T010 · 2 marksA resolved simple finding is suitable for oral communication, with no other written requirement applying. The trainee says SA26019 forces all findings into formal letters. Which is best?
Explanation
Correct answer B: Determine form in judgment; significant findings require writing if oral communication would be inadequate.
SA 260 paragraph 19/A46-A47 distinguish conditional writing and relevant circumstances; oral matters still need paragraph23 documentation.
AUD-G10-T011 · 2 marksGovernance and auditor have frequent useful dialogue, but a prescribed written form under applicable law also applies. What should govern form?
Explanation
Correct answer A: Meet the legal form requirement as well as effective communication needs.
SA 260 A47(f) includes legal requirements; good dialogue is not an exemption or evidence guarantee.
AUD-G10-T012 · 2 marksThe auditor evaluates communication adequacy from observations during existing audit work. Is a separately designed communication-testing programme invariably required?
Explanation
Correct answer D: No; evaluation may use observations from procedures performed for other purposes.
SA 260 A51 permits this observational basis; paragraph22 still requires evaluation of adequacy and implications.
AUD-G10-T013 · 2 marksA proposal to withdraw after unresolved dialogue is assessed, but applicable law does not permit withdrawal. Which answer is correct?
Explanation
Correct answer D: Withdrawal is not available on those facts; consider other appropriate lawful responses.
SA 260 A53 makes withdrawal conditional on law/regulation and lists other possible appropriate actions; none is universally automatic.
AUD-G10-T014 · 2 marksA confirmed applicable rule prohibits a particular disclosure because it would prejudice an authority investigation. How should the auditor treat communication?
Explanation
Correct answer A: Respect the particular restriction and consider complex obligation conflicts/advice without treating all unrelated matters as exempt.
SA 260 paragraph7 recognises restrictions and possible legal advice; a particular prohibition does not create blanket silence.
AUD-G10-T015 · 2 marksA governance letter is to be provided to a funding body under an established applicable legal requirement. Is prior consent under A45 an unconditional obstacle?
Explanation
Correct answer B: No; A45 distinguishes provision required by law/regulation, while purpose and restrictions still need appropriate consideration.
SA 260 A43-A45 distinguish legally required provision from discretionary distribution; scope and intended-use limits remain.
AUD-G10-T016 · 2 marksA financial-statement audit letter says controls were considered to design procedures, not to express a control-effectiveness opinion in this supplied engagement. What does that statement NOT establish?
Explanation
Correct answer C: That all separate legal or other engagement control-reporting obligations never exist.
SA 265 paragraph11(b) supplies engagement context, not a denial of every different statutory or assurance scope.
AUD-G10-T017 · 2 marksThe auditor learns of a deficiency solely as an unsupported rumour. A trainee calls it significant without further supported evaluation. What is best?
Explanation
Correct answer A: Determine supported identified deficiencies from audit work and assess significance in judgment.
SA 265 paragraphs7-8 require determination based on work and significance assessment; uncertainty needs grounded consideration, not automatic classification.
AUD-G10-T018 · 2 marksTwo unrelated weaknesses each have supported low significance. Does their count alone force a significant-deficiency conclusion?
Explanation
Correct answer D: No; evaluate their circumstances and interaction rather than a numerical count rule.
SA 265 paragraph8/A8 require individual/combined judgment, not a fixed-count threshold.
AUD-G10-T019 · 2 marksThe remedy requires authority held by senior management. An unrelated junior clerk understands the letter but cannot act. What recipient choice is best?
Explanation
Correct answer D: Appropriate management with responsibility and authority to evaluate and take remedial action.
SA 265 A19 links management level to authority/responsibility; familiarity alone is insufficient.
AUD-G10-T020 · 2 marksA formerly non-significant issue becomes serious after reliable new information. Management says an old internal-audit notice prevents all further communication. What is best?
Explanation
Correct answer C: Reassess current significance and apply required communication to the current supported conclusion.
SA 265 A24 permits reconsideration with new information and possible significant-deficiency escalation, not permanent exemption.
AUD-G10-T021 · 2 marksSeveral identified significant deficiencies can be described clearly together without hiding their effects. Is grouping prohibited?
Explanation
Correct answer D: No; they may be grouped for reporting where appropriate.
SA 265 A28 permits appropriate grouping, without removing paragraph11 content or audit-context requirements.
AUD-G10-T022 · 2 marksManagement responses are included accurately in a letter, with a statement that implementation was not verified. Which conclusion is valid?
Explanation
Correct answer D: Including responses does not itself establish implemented effective remediation.
SA 265 A28 allows responses and verification-status information; attribution and evidence limits are essential.
AUD-G10-T023 · 2 marksA complex public-interest entity has multiple technical deficiencies. The auditor copies a minimal letter used for a simple private entity. What should be reviewed?
Explanation
Correct answer B: Appropriate detail considering entity nature, complexity, governance composition and deficiency nature.
SA 265 A15 specifies these circumstance-sensitive factors; style reuse does not prove adequate content.
AUD-G10-T024 · 2 marksGovernance already knows a significant deficiency, but has not received the auditor written communication. What remains?
Explanation
Correct answer C: The auditor required written governance communication despite existing awareness.
SA 265 paragraph9/A16 retain the duty despite existing knowledge or cost considerations.
AUD-G10-T025 · 2 marksA letter is deliberately delayed because audit-file assembly can occur later, though immediate governance action is needed. Which interpretation is sound?
Explanation
Correct answer C: Useful timely communication cannot be replaced by a general file-assembly waiting entitlement.
SA 265 A13-A14 link writing/timing to oversight and urgent oral notice without eliminating writing; assembly context is not blanket delay permission.
AUD-G10-T026 · 2 marksResponsible management discusses a new other deficiency fully during findings discussions. Facts establish this was an appropriate oral communication. What is correct?
Explanation
Correct answer A: A separate formal repeat need not necessarily follow solely to duplicate that communication.
SA 265 A23 recognises communication at the time of discussion; classify correctly and preserve actual communication records.
AUD-G10-T027 · 2 marksManagement supplies a rational cost explanation for an unremedied significant deficiency. Which statement is best?
Explanation
Correct answer B: The deficiency still needs communication; unexplained failure is not assumed from these facts.
SA 265 A16-A17 preserve duty but specifically condition the additional failure-to-act indicator on lack of a rational explanation.
AUD-G10-T028 · 2 marksA letter accurately identifies two significant deficiencies but labels them a complete entity-wide weakness inventory. Which audit-context statement corrects this?
Explanation
Correct answer A: Reported matters are limited to identified deficiencies concluded important enough for governance attention.
SA 265 paragraph11(b)(iii) prevents the completeness claim; identified important matters are not an exhaustive inventory.
AUD-G10-T029 · 2 marksEntity minutes record the oral matters, date and recipients accurately and appropriately. May a retained copy form part of audit documentation?
Explanation
Correct answer B: Yes, where those minutes are an appropriate record of the communication.
SA 260 A54 permits appropriate retained minutes; suitability is the condition, not authorship alone or universal evidence replacement.
AUD-G10-T030 · 2 marksA supplementary governance concern was found incidentally. The auditor performed only procedures necessary for the financial-statement opinion. Which proposed statement is misleading?
Explanation
Correct answer B: We searched for all other supplementary governance concerns.
SA 260 A36 recommends clear incidental/procedure limits. Claiming an additional exhaustive search contradicts the supplied work.
Official standards: SA260 Revised, SA265.