Group 18: Audit of Items of Financial Statements
30 original test MCQs. 2 marks each. Separate practice and test sets.
Original practice, not ICAI questions, official suggested answers or an official examiner scheme. Equivalent correct work is credited within the stated caps. Public practice availability is not full official question-bank completion.
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AUD-G18-T001 · 2 marksCompany secretary says capital never changed, but bank and allotment records show a valid fresh cash issue. What should the auditor do?
Explanation
Correct answer B: Reconcile original issue approvals, register, receipts and capital movements instead of relying solely on the representation.
Written representation is not a substitute for contradictory transaction evidence; actual allotment legality is supplied.
AUD-G18-T002 · 2 marksCash paid for shares is correctly recorded in total equity but premium is included in face-value share capital. What effect may correction have?
Explanation
Correct answer B: Reclassification within equity can correct the captions without changing total equity or profit.
Verify face value, issue price and amount; classifications can be wrong despite correct total.
AUD-G18-T003 · 2 marksAn equity reserve opens Rs 5 lakh; valid profit appropriation Rs 2 lakh and supported utilisation Rs 1 lakh apply. What closing reserve follows?
Explanation
Correct answer A: Rs 6 lakh, with the underlying movements separately verified.
5+2-1=6. Name and arithmetic do not themselves prove that use is lawful; inspect actual criteria.
AUD-G18-T004 · 2 marksA secured loan is repaid and management says the asset charge must already be released. What evidence is needed?
Explanation
Correct answer B: Actual discharge/release and relevant lender/charge evidence, not repayment alone as proof of every release formality.
Debt settlement and security discharge require their own evidence; loan/deposit disclosures should reflect actual position.
AUD-G18-T005 · 2 marksPrincipal Rs 12 lakh outstanding four months at 9% annual simple interest; no payment, capitalisation or other adjustment. What accrual follows?
Explanation
Correct answer C: Rs 36000.
1200000 x 9% x 4/12=36000. Verify actual period/rate in real work.
AUD-G18-T006 · 2 marksReceivable confirmation and subsequent cash support 70% ofbalance; the rest relates to disputed deliveries. Which inference is unsound?
Explanation
Correct answer C: That collection of 70% proves existence and recoverability of the remaining disputed 30%.
Partial receipts must be allocated to specific balances; they do not universally validate the remainder.
AUD-G18-T007 · 2 marksReceivables include Rs 2 lakh employee advance, though supplied presentation distinguishes trade customer debts. What is needed?
Explanation
Correct answer D: Separate the employee advance from trade receivables and verify its recovery and appropriate caption.
Classification and valuation are distinct; non-sales balances should not be silently included in the trade population.
AUD-G18-T008 · 2 marksCurrencycount Rs 42000 plus approved recoverable IOU Rs 8000 equals cashbook Rs 50000. What known issue exists?
Explanation
Correct answer B: Rs 8000 classification to advance rather than physical cash; no cash loss is established solely by that reconciliation.
IOU is not currency;cash 42 plusadvance 8 reconciles 50. Approval and recovery still require evidence.
AUD-G18-T009 · 2 marksA bank confirmation reveals an unrecorded deposit account pledged for a borrowing. What assertions require work?
Explanation
Correct answer D: Completeness of bank accounts, ownership and restriction/security presentation, not just arithmetic on listed accounts.
Independent bank evidence can reveal missing accounts and restrictions; pledge does not erase ownership.
AUD-G18-T010 · 2 marksOwned goods are held at a warehouse and not included in the client's count. What is fitting?
Explanation
Correct answer B: Verify custody/ownership and include supported third-party inventory rather than exclude it solely by location.
Confirmation authenticity, ownership terms, movements and value need evidence; physical location alone does not decide recognition.
AUD-G18-T011 · 2 marksNormal finished-goods cost is Rs 90000, with Rs 12000 abnormal wastage also capitalised. Supplied criterion excludes abnormal wastage from inventory cost. What is supported?
Explanation
Correct answer A: Exclude Rs 12000 from inventory cost and recognise it appropriately in expense.
Cost composition matters beyond cash expenditure; the valuation criterion is explicitly supplied.
AUD-G18-T012 · 2 marksDamaged inventory costs Rs 70000 and has supported NRV Rs 52000; existing write-down Rs 6000. Under suppliedlower of cost/NRV, what additional reduction is needed?
Explanation
Correct answer D: Rs 12000.
Total reduction 70000-52000=18000;less 6000 recorded=12000 additional.
AUD-G18-T013 · 2 marksPhysical inspection cannot locate one tagged machine; management proposes automatic full deletion before tracing transfers or sale records. What is best?
Explanation
Correct answer A: Investigate location, custody, ownership, disposal and impairment evidence before supported correction.
Absence at the inspected site is a discrepancy, not complete evidence of disposition or value.
AUD-G18-T014 · 2 marksA straight-line AS 10 asset is repaired regularly and fair value rises above carrying value; residual stays below carrying amount. What is wrong with stopping depreciation solely for these reasons?
Explanation
Correct answer A: Repairs and higher fair value do not negate depreciation under the stated AS 10 conditions.
AS 10 paragraph 54 recognises depreciation despite higher fair value when residual does not exceed carrying; repairs do not negate it.
AUD-G18-T015 · 2 marksA plant expansion cost file includes delivery/installation and general corporate administration. AS 10 cost criteria supplied. What evidence distinction matters?
Explanation
Correct answer A: Whether costs are directly attributable to bringing the asset to intended location/condition, rather than merely incurred during the project.
Nature and attribution require invoices/work records and criteria; timing/department labels alone are insufficient.
AUD-G18-T016 · 2 marksAn entity holds a patent document but cannot substantiate recorded acquisition cost or control of the claimed rights. What should the audit avoid?
Explanation
Correct answer A: Treating the existence of one certificate as proof of every rights and valuation assertion.
Intangible rights, recognition and value need separate support; a certificate alone is not all evidence.
AUD-G18-T017 · 2 marksSupplied finite-life policy gives softwarecost Rs 240000, nil residual, four-year straight-line amortisation, available for the full year. What charge follows?
Explanation
Correct answer D: Rs 60000.
240000/4=60000. The finite-life/method/period are supplied, not universally inferred for all intangibles.
AUD-G18-T018 · 2 marksManagement refuses creditor confirmation and gives no reasonable grounds. What is sound?
Explanation
Correct answer A: Investigate reasons, perform appropriate further/alternative work and assess evidence implications.
Refusal changes evidence/risk assessment; sufficient work and actual materiality/reporting determine outcome.
AUD-G18-T019 · 2 marksA supplier statement Rs 240000 versus ledger Rs 190000 has an omitted verified Rs 50000 pre-year-end invoice. What correction follows?
Explanation
Correct answer D: Recognise Rs 50000 missing obligation/related account consistently, rather than indefinite unexplained reconciliation.
240000-190000=50000. Inspect cut-off, nature and existing inventory/expense to avoid duplicate effects.
AUD-G18-T020 · 2 marksAn advance to a related party is confirmed, but authority and repayment terms are not inspected. What remains unproven?
Explanation
Correct answer C: Appropriate authorisation, terms, recovery and disclosure despite balance acknowledgment.
Loans/advances need authority and recovery/terms work; related-party status adds disclosure/approval issues under actual law.
AUD-G18-T021 · 2 marksA management expert computes a liability accurately from an employee list that omits a whole eligible branch. What should the auditor test?
Explanation
Correct answer B: Input completeness and relevance as well as expert competence/capability/objectivity and calculation.
Expert work does not cure incomplete underlying data; reconcile population and assumptions.
AUD-G18-T022 · 2 marksAn obligation meets all explicit present/probable/reliable criteria for Rs 4 lakh. Management discloses a possible claim only. What is the supported concern?
Explanation
Correct answer C: Rs 4 lakh provision/expense is omitted; disclosure alone does not replace required recognition.
Use actual recognition criteria and legal evidence; present/probable is not merely possible under this exercise.
AUD-G18-T023 · 2 marksPremature sale Rs 250000 and cost Rs 150000 are recorded before suppliedtitle/delivery conditions; goods still belong in stock. What profit overstatement follows?
Explanation
Correct answer C: Rs 100000 when reversing both premature revenue and cost.
250000-150000=100000. Restore ownedstock/correct related balances; actual payment facts are separate.
AUD-G18-T024 · 2 marksA refundable deposit for a future cancellable service is credited to sales. No performance exists and supplied criterion requires performance. What is fitting?
Explanation
Correct answer D: Recognise the advance liability rather than earned current sales.
Cash receipt and performance differ; contract and cut-off evidence drive this exercise.
AUD-G18-T025 · 2 marksA proposed dividend has not established the investor's right to payment under supplied recognition criteria. What should be avoided?
Explanation
Correct answer B: Booking dividend receivable merely from management's expectation.
The module other-income criteria require a supported right and relevant recognition evidence, not expectation alone.
AUD-G18-T026 · 2 marksA receiving note and valid supplier invoice agree, but no evidence of actual delivery or authentic supplier exists for a suspicious purchase. What is wrong with accepting it immediately?
Explanation
Correct answer D: Matching documents alone may be insufficient occurrence evidence when authenticity/delivery are unresolved.
Consistency among possibly unreliable documents is not automatic genuineness; investigate risk rather than assert proven fraud.
AUD-G18-T027 · 2 marksEarnedbonus Rs 80000 is omitted because payment is next year; a Rs 20000 recoverable employee overpayment is wrongly wages. Supplied accrual/recovery criteria apply. What net expense correction follows?
Explanation
Correct answer D: Increase Rs 60000, while recording distinct bonus liability and employee receivable.
Add 80000 bonus less 20000 wage overstatement=60000 expense increase. Do not net unrelated assets/liabilities.
AUD-G18-T028 · 2 marksAS 10 asset cost Rs 500000,residual Rs 50000,five-year straight-line life; full-year available for use. What annual charge is supported?
Explanation
Correct answer C: Rs 90000.
(500000-50000)/5=90000; availability and actual framework/policy matter.
AUD-G18-T029 · 2 marksAn officer's personal holiday bill is paid by the entity and labelled business travel, with no business purpose. What is appropriate?
Explanation
Correct answer C: Investigate authorisation, business/personal substance, recovery and correct classification rather than accept the label.
Expense tests include entity purpose and authority, plus supported accounting; label and payment alone are insufficient.
AUD-G18-T030 · 2 marksA debtor's due-date aging is materially misstated even though its gross total is correct. What should not be inferred?
Explanation
Correct answer C: That correct total proves aging disclosures or recoverability are correct.
Aging, amount and recovery are separate; an aging error does not automatically equal a full debt write-off.
Official concept links appear with each question. The source hold is included in the review pack. No blanket 2026 statutory completeness is claimed; supplied mandate/criteria and visible source holds apply.