Group 5: Audit Procedures
30 original practice MCQs. 2 marks each. Separate practice and test sets.
Original practice, not ICAI questions, official suggested answers or an official examiner scheme. Equivalent correct work is credited within the stated caps. Public practice availability is not full official question-bank completion.
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AUD-G05-P001 · 2 marksAn auditor reads electronic loan documents to examine their terms. What technique is used?
Explanation
Correct answer A: Inspection.
Inspection covers records/documents in paper, electronic or other media. The medium or presence of amounts does not change the technique.
AUD-G05-P002 · 2 marksA bond certificate is inspected. Which broad conclusion is unsafe without other evidence?
Explanation
Correct answer D: That inspection necessarily establishes ownership and value as well as existence.
Some documents directly evidence asset existence but not necessarily ownership/value. Keep conclusions within the objective supported.
AUD-G05-P003 · 2 marksThe team sees stock items and decides no valuation work is needed. What is the defect?
Explanation
Correct answer A: Existence inspection does not necessarily establish valuation.
Physical inspection can support existence. That evidence is not a substitute for valuation evidence.
AUD-G05-P004 · 2 marksAn auditor watches a cashier carry out a reconciliation but does not independently execute it. Which technique fits?
Explanation
Correct answer A: Observation.
Observation watches a process performed by others; independent execution would be reperformance.
AUD-G05-P005 · 2 marksAn observed review is unusually careful while the auditor is present. What limitation matters?
Explanation
Correct answer B: Being observed may affect how the process is performed.
Observation is time-specific and the observer may affect behaviour. Consider relevant other evidence without inferring fraud.
AUD-G05-P006 · 2 marksA third party directly sends the auditor a written reply about amended contract terms. Which description fits?
Explanation
Correct answer A: External confirmation, which need not be confined to balances.
The definition is a direct written response to the auditor from a confirming party. Terms and modifications can be relevant subjects.
AUD-G05-P007 · 2 marksThe customer tells the auditor contract terms by telephone, with no written reply. Which is most accurate?
Explanation
Correct answer D: It is useful outside-party inquiry information, not by itself the defined written external confirmation.
Inquiry can be oral and from outside the entity. Defined external confirmation requires a direct written response.
AUD-G05-P008 · 2 marksA confirmation request asks whether any side arrangement affects the main agreement. What is the principle?
Explanation
Correct answer A: Confirmation can address absence of conditions as well as account balances.
The module gives absence of a side agreement as a possible confirmation subject. The question does not establish one exists.
AUD-G05-P009 · 2 marksThe auditor checks a spreadsheet multiplication and total independently. Which technique is this?
Explanation
Correct answer C: Recalculation.
Recalculation checks mathematical accuracy manually or electronically. It does not automatically validate every input or assumption.
AUD-G05-P010 · 2 marksStaff have aged balances; the auditor independently runs that ageing procedure from relevant dates. Which technique is used?
Explanation
Correct answer A: Reperformance.
Independent execution of the entity procedure is reperformance; preliminary inquiry/inspection can accompany it.
AUD-G05-P011 · 2 marksCorrect spreadsheet arithmetic is used to claim every provision assumption is reasonable. Which statement is sound?
Explanation
Correct answer C: Arithmetic evidence alone does not establish the reasonableness of all assumptions.
Recalculation has a mathematical-accuracy objective. Inputs and assumptions require evidence appropriate to their own purposes.
AUD-G05-P012 · 2 marksRevenue is evaluated against service volumes using a plausible relationship, and significant departures are investigated. Which technique fits?
Explanation
Correct answer C: Analytical procedures.
Analytics evaluate plausible relationships among financial/nonfinancial data and investigate inconsistent fluctuations or deviations.
AUD-G05-P013 · 2 marksThe auditor asks a nonfinancial operations employee about delayed production. Is this inquiry?
Explanation
Correct answer D: Yes; inquiry can seek information from knowledgeable financial or nonfinancial persons.
Inquiry includes knowledgeable people inside/outside the entity and formal written or informal oral exchanges. Responses require evaluation.
AUD-G05-P014 · 2 marksTwo staff explanations conflict with relevant records. What should inquiry work include?
Explanation
Correct answer D: Evaluate the responses and determine necessary clarification or additional procedures.
Evaluation is integral to inquiry; responses can differ from other information and call for modified/additional work.
AUD-G05-P015 · 2 marksManagement says it plans an action, but direct evidence of future intention is limited. Which corroboration is useful?
Explanation
Correct answer C: History of carrying out intentions, reasons for this action and ability to pursue it.
The module identifies history, rationale and ability as relevant information where intent support is limited, not guarantees of future action.
AUD-G05-P016 · 2 marksAn employee identifies a duplicated entry during inquiry. Which statement is correct?
Explanation
Correct answer B: Inquiry may provide important evidence, even of a misstatement, but the response must be evaluated.
Inquiry can produce new information or error evidence. Evaluate the supplied facts and scope rather than dismissing or overclaiming them.
AUD-G05-P017 · 2 marksManagement denies all errors orally. Can that alone ordinarily establish absence of assertion-level material misstatement?
Explanation
Correct answer B: No; inquiry alone ordinarily is insufficient for that conclusion.
Inquiry is useful but ordinarily cannot alone support absence of material misstatement or control operating effectiveness.
AUD-G05-P018 · 2 marksA prior file contains evidence about continuing terms. What is necessary before appropriate current use?
Explanation
Correct answer A: Perform procedures establishing its continuing relevance.
Previous evidence may be appropriate in certain circumstances, with procedures establishing continuing relevance to the current purpose.
AUD-G05-P019 · 2 marksElectronic transaction changes are overwritten before the planned visit. What should procedure planning consider?
Explanation
Correct answer B: Request relevant retention or perform work while the information is available.
Information availability can affect nature/timing. Retention arrangements or earlier work may be needed; unavailable backups cannot be invented.
AUD-G05-P020 · 2 marksA supplier offers accessible scanned records instead of paper. Which planning view is sound?
Explanation
Correct answer C: Inspection can use electronic records, while actual availability and evidence needs must be assessed.
Inspection permits electronic media. Its suitability and remaining gaps depend on records and the intended objective.
AUD-G05-P021 · 2 marksThe team inspects new system terms solely to understand possible fraud/error risks. Which purpose fits?
Explanation
Correct answer C: Risk assessment.
Purpose/context matters. Understanding to identify/assess risks is risk assessment, not automatically another category.
AUD-G05-P022 · 2 marksA procedure evaluates whether a required review operated to prevent or detect/correct assertion misstatements. Which category fits?
Explanation
Correct answer D: Test of controls.
Control tests evaluate operating effectiveness in preventing/detecting/correcting material assertion misstatements.
AUD-G05-P023 · 2 marksA procedure compares recorded transaction amounts with relevant records to detect material errors. Which purpose fits?
Explanation
Correct answer B: Substantive test of details.
Substantive procedures detect assertion-level material misstatements. Detail checking is distinct from testing approval operation.
AUD-G05-P024 · 2 marksA disclosure is checked against its underlying detailed records for misstatement. Is detail testing limited to account balances?
Explanation
Correct answer C: No; tests of details can cover transactions, balances and disclosures.
The module includes classes of transactions, account balances and disclosures in tests of details. Scope remains purpose-specific.
AUD-G05-P025 · 2 marksThe auditor searches for omitted payables using only the recorded payable list. What is the main relevance problem?
Explanation
Correct answer B: Omissions may be absent from that list; relevant unrecorded-liability information is needed.
Direction matters. Subsequent payments, unpaid invoices, supplier statements or unmatched receipts may be relevant to understatement objectives.
AUD-G05-P026 · 2 marksLater cash collection supports a receivable. What additional assertion is not necessarily established by that fact?
Explanation
Correct answer D: Cut-off.
Collection evidence can relate to existence/valuation but not necessarily cut-off; do not infer all assertions from one source.
AUD-G05-P027 · 2 marksOne invoice is checked for approval and amount correctness. How should the two results be treated?
Explanation
Correct answer B: Evaluate the control attribute and substantive amount condition separately.
The same document/technique can support different purposes. Conditions and results must address each objective.
AUD-G05-P028 · 2 marksApproval records are inspected, but the auditor never compares transaction amounts. Which conclusion is unsupported?
Explanation
Correct answer D: That inspection of approval alone proves all recorded amounts correct.
Inspection can serve control testing; evidence of authorisation does not automatically provide all substantive assertions.
AUD-G05-P029 · 2 marksThe team combines inquiry, inspection and independent execution. What determines their use as risk, control or substantive work?
Explanation
Correct answer B: The context and actual purpose for which they are applied.
Techniques often work in combination and can serve different audit purposes. Labels or media do not alone decide the category.
AUD-G05-P030 · 2 marksA procedure list contains risk assessment and then tests of controls and substantive work. What are further procedures?
Explanation
Correct answer A: Tests of controls when required/chosen, plus substantive procedures.
Further procedures comprise tests of controls where required or chosen and substantive detail/analytical procedures. This is the basic classification, not all detailed standard rules.