Group 5: Audit Procedures

30 original practice MCQs. 2 marks each. Separate practice and test sets.

Original practice, not ICAI questions, official suggested answers or an official examiner scheme. Equivalent correct work is credited within the stated caps. Public practice availability is not full official question-bank completion.

Not scored yet.

AUD-G05-P001 · 2 marks

An auditor reads electronic loan documents to examine their terms. What technique is used?

Explanation

Correct answer A: Inspection.

Inspection covers records/documents in paper, electronic or other media. The medium or presence of amounts does not change the technique.

AUD-G05-P002 · 2 marks

A bond certificate is inspected. Which broad conclusion is unsafe without other evidence?

Explanation

Correct answer D: That inspection necessarily establishes ownership and value as well as existence.

Some documents directly evidence asset existence but not necessarily ownership/value. Keep conclusions within the objective supported.

AUD-G05-P003 · 2 marks

The team sees stock items and decides no valuation work is needed. What is the defect?

Explanation

Correct answer A: Existence inspection does not necessarily establish valuation.

Physical inspection can support existence. That evidence is not a substitute for valuation evidence.

AUD-G05-P004 · 2 marks

An auditor watches a cashier carry out a reconciliation but does not independently execute it. Which technique fits?

Explanation

Correct answer A: Observation.

Observation watches a process performed by others; independent execution would be reperformance.

AUD-G05-P005 · 2 marks

An observed review is unusually careful while the auditor is present. What limitation matters?

Explanation

Correct answer B: Being observed may affect how the process is performed.

Observation is time-specific and the observer may affect behaviour. Consider relevant other evidence without inferring fraud.

AUD-G05-P006 · 2 marks

A third party directly sends the auditor a written reply about amended contract terms. Which description fits?

Explanation

Correct answer A: External confirmation, which need not be confined to balances.

The definition is a direct written response to the auditor from a confirming party. Terms and modifications can be relevant subjects.

AUD-G05-P007 · 2 marks

The customer tells the auditor contract terms by telephone, with no written reply. Which is most accurate?

Explanation

Correct answer D: It is useful outside-party inquiry information, not by itself the defined written external confirmation.

Inquiry can be oral and from outside the entity. Defined external confirmation requires a direct written response.

AUD-G05-P008 · 2 marks

A confirmation request asks whether any side arrangement affects the main agreement. What is the principle?

Explanation

Correct answer A: Confirmation can address absence of conditions as well as account balances.

The module gives absence of a side agreement as a possible confirmation subject. The question does not establish one exists.

AUD-G05-P009 · 2 marks

The auditor checks a spreadsheet multiplication and total independently. Which technique is this?

Explanation

Correct answer C: Recalculation.

Recalculation checks mathematical accuracy manually or electronically. It does not automatically validate every input or assumption.

AUD-G05-P010 · 2 marks

Staff have aged balances; the auditor independently runs that ageing procedure from relevant dates. Which technique is used?

Explanation

Correct answer A: Reperformance.

Independent execution of the entity procedure is reperformance; preliminary inquiry/inspection can accompany it.

AUD-G05-P011 · 2 marks

Correct spreadsheet arithmetic is used to claim every provision assumption is reasonable. Which statement is sound?

Explanation

Correct answer C: Arithmetic evidence alone does not establish the reasonableness of all assumptions.

Recalculation has a mathematical-accuracy objective. Inputs and assumptions require evidence appropriate to their own purposes.

AUD-G05-P012 · 2 marks

Revenue is evaluated against service volumes using a plausible relationship, and significant departures are investigated. Which technique fits?

Explanation

Correct answer C: Analytical procedures.

Analytics evaluate plausible relationships among financial/nonfinancial data and investigate inconsistent fluctuations or deviations.

AUD-G05-P013 · 2 marks

The auditor asks a nonfinancial operations employee about delayed production. Is this inquiry?

Explanation

Correct answer D: Yes; inquiry can seek information from knowledgeable financial or nonfinancial persons.

Inquiry includes knowledgeable people inside/outside the entity and formal written or informal oral exchanges. Responses require evaluation.

AUD-G05-P014 · 2 marks

Two staff explanations conflict with relevant records. What should inquiry work include?

Explanation

Correct answer D: Evaluate the responses and determine necessary clarification or additional procedures.

Evaluation is integral to inquiry; responses can differ from other information and call for modified/additional work.

AUD-G05-P015 · 2 marks

Management says it plans an action, but direct evidence of future intention is limited. Which corroboration is useful?

Explanation

Correct answer C: History of carrying out intentions, reasons for this action and ability to pursue it.

The module identifies history, rationale and ability as relevant information where intent support is limited, not guarantees of future action.

AUD-G05-P016 · 2 marks

An employee identifies a duplicated entry during inquiry. Which statement is correct?

Explanation

Correct answer B: Inquiry may provide important evidence, even of a misstatement, but the response must be evaluated.

Inquiry can produce new information or error evidence. Evaluate the supplied facts and scope rather than dismissing or overclaiming them.

AUD-G05-P017 · 2 marks

Management denies all errors orally. Can that alone ordinarily establish absence of assertion-level material misstatement?

Explanation

Correct answer B: No; inquiry alone ordinarily is insufficient for that conclusion.

Inquiry is useful but ordinarily cannot alone support absence of material misstatement or control operating effectiveness.

AUD-G05-P018 · 2 marks

A prior file contains evidence about continuing terms. What is necessary before appropriate current use?

Explanation

Correct answer A: Perform procedures establishing its continuing relevance.

Previous evidence may be appropriate in certain circumstances, with procedures establishing continuing relevance to the current purpose.

AUD-G05-P019 · 2 marks

Electronic transaction changes are overwritten before the planned visit. What should procedure planning consider?

Explanation

Correct answer B: Request relevant retention or perform work while the information is available.

Information availability can affect nature/timing. Retention arrangements or earlier work may be needed; unavailable backups cannot be invented.

AUD-G05-P020 · 2 marks

A supplier offers accessible scanned records instead of paper. Which planning view is sound?

Explanation

Correct answer C: Inspection can use electronic records, while actual availability and evidence needs must be assessed.

Inspection permits electronic media. Its suitability and remaining gaps depend on records and the intended objective.

AUD-G05-P021 · 2 marks

The team inspects new system terms solely to understand possible fraud/error risks. Which purpose fits?

Explanation

Correct answer C: Risk assessment.

Purpose/context matters. Understanding to identify/assess risks is risk assessment, not automatically another category.

AUD-G05-P022 · 2 marks

A procedure evaluates whether a required review operated to prevent or detect/correct assertion misstatements. Which category fits?

Explanation

Correct answer D: Test of controls.

Control tests evaluate operating effectiveness in preventing/detecting/correcting material assertion misstatements.

AUD-G05-P023 · 2 marks

A procedure compares recorded transaction amounts with relevant records to detect material errors. Which purpose fits?

Explanation

Correct answer B: Substantive test of details.

Substantive procedures detect assertion-level material misstatements. Detail checking is distinct from testing approval operation.

AUD-G05-P024 · 2 marks

A disclosure is checked against its underlying detailed records for misstatement. Is detail testing limited to account balances?

Explanation

Correct answer C: No; tests of details can cover transactions, balances and disclosures.

The module includes classes of transactions, account balances and disclosures in tests of details. Scope remains purpose-specific.

AUD-G05-P025 · 2 marks

The auditor searches for omitted payables using only the recorded payable list. What is the main relevance problem?

Explanation

Correct answer B: Omissions may be absent from that list; relevant unrecorded-liability information is needed.

Direction matters. Subsequent payments, unpaid invoices, supplier statements or unmatched receipts may be relevant to understatement objectives.

AUD-G05-P026 · 2 marks

Later cash collection supports a receivable. What additional assertion is not necessarily established by that fact?

Explanation

Correct answer D: Cut-off.

Collection evidence can relate to existence/valuation but not necessarily cut-off; do not infer all assertions from one source.

AUD-G05-P027 · 2 marks

One invoice is checked for approval and amount correctness. How should the two results be treated?

Explanation

Correct answer B: Evaluate the control attribute and substantive amount condition separately.

The same document/technique can support different purposes. Conditions and results must address each objective.

AUD-G05-P028 · 2 marks

Approval records are inspected, but the auditor never compares transaction amounts. Which conclusion is unsupported?

Explanation

Correct answer D: That inspection of approval alone proves all recorded amounts correct.

Inspection can serve control testing; evidence of authorisation does not automatically provide all substantive assertions.

AUD-G05-P029 · 2 marks

The team combines inquiry, inspection and independent execution. What determines their use as risk, control or substantive work?

Explanation

Correct answer B: The context and actual purpose for which they are applied.

Techniques often work in combination and can serve different audit purposes. Labels or media do not alone decide the category.

AUD-G05-P030 · 2 marks

A procedure list contains risk assessment and then tests of controls and substantive work. What are further procedures?

Explanation

Correct answer A: Tests of controls when required/chosen, plus substantive procedures.

Further procedures comprise tests of controls where required or chosen and substantive detail/analytical procedures. This is the basic classification, not all detailed standard rules.