Cost of Capital
30 original test MCQs, 2 marks each. Practice and separate-test stems differ. T001-T010 use one shared case below; T011-T030 stand alone.
Original practice, not official ICAI questions or suggested answers. Scores are temporary and not synced to Study Hub. Contract/current-rule/accounting/tax boundaries are included in the review pack.
Not scored yet.
Orchid Components: shared case for T001-T010
Shared case: Orchid Components, T001-T010
All funding amounts are Rs lakh. New target financing is debt 30%, preference 10%, ordinary equity 60%. Rates apply only to additional funds in each tier, not retroactively. First Rs 12 lakh of new debt costs 7% after tax; further debt costs 9% after tax. Preference cost 10% throughout, with no additional tax adjustment. Retained earnings available Rs 18 lakh cost 12%; external new equity costs 14%. Treat all these costs as case-supplied annualised opportunity-cost rates, not live quotes or current tax advice.
The planned programme raises Rs 50 lakh of net funds. Maintain target proportions at every stage. Total-funding breakpoints divide a source limit by that source's weight. Programme average weights actual tranches; marginal cost means the cost of the next rupee. No project cash flows or investment-opportunity schedule are supplied. Each question is independently scored; the case does not authorise an issue, purchase or project acceptance.FM-C04-T001 · 2 marksRead shared case
Orchid retained-equity total-funding breakpoint?
Explanation
Correct answer C: Rs 30 lakh.
18/.6.
FM-C04-T002 · 2 marksRead shared case
Orchid low-debt-rate total-funding breakpoint?
Explanation
Correct answer A: Rs 40 lakh.
12/.3.
FM-C04-T003 · 2 marksRead shared case
MCC before the first breakpoint?
Explanation
Correct answer A: 10.3%.
.3 x 7+.1 x 10+.6 x 12.
FM-C04-T004 · 2 marksRead shared case
MCC for additional total funds above 30 through 40 lakh?
Explanation
Correct answer A: 11.5%.
.3 x 7+.1 x 10+.6 x 14.
FM-C04-T005 · 2 marksRead shared case
MCC above 40 lakh?
Explanation
Correct answer C: 12.1%.
.3 x 9+.1 x 10+.6 x 14.
FM-C04-T006 · 2 marksRead shared case
Debt in 50 lakh programme?
Explanation
Correct answer D: 15 lakh: 12 at 7%, 3 at 9%.
50 x.3=15, tiers incremental.
FM-C04-T007 · 2 marksRead shared case
Equity in 50 lakh programme?
Explanation
Correct answer B: 30 lakh: 18 retained, 12 external.
50 x.6=30; retention resource 18.
FM-C04-T008 · 2 marksRead shared case
Preference finance in 50 lakh programme?
Explanation
Correct answer A: Rs 5 lakh.
50 x.1=5.
FM-C04-T009 · 2 marksRead shared case
Overall annualised cost proxy/programme funds?
Explanation
Correct answer B: 10.9%.
Cost .84+.27+.5+2.16+1.68=5.45; 5.45/50.
FM-C04-T010 · 2 marksRead shared case
After 50 lakh, next-rupee cost under unchanged target and tiers?
Explanation
Correct answer A: 12.1%, not programme average 10.9%.
Use highest current marginal band; no project acceptance without cash/risk evidence.
FM-C04-T011 · 2 marksExisting current equity price 80, D1=4.2, g 5%, no new issue. Current equity cost?
Explanation
Correct answer C: 10.25%.
4.2/80+.05.
FM-C04-T012 · 2 marksCoupon-only tax shield permitted; redemption difference not deductible. Which step is wrong?
Explanation
Correct answer C: Tax-adjusting the entire approximate numerator.
Only coupon gets specified shield.
FM-C04-T013 · 2 marksNP 95; payments 8, 8, 8, 113 at year ends 1-4. Exact IRR?
Explanation
Correct answer B: About 10.67%.
Solve scheduled PV=95; final 113 includes dividend and redemption.
FM-C04-T014 · 2 marksNP 94; payments 7 at years 1-4 and 107 at year 5. Exact IRR?
Explanation
Correct answer D: About 8.52%.
Discount all annual flows against 94.
FM-C04-T015 · 2 marksPast shareholder IRR is proposed as certain future cost. Which assumption needs scrutiny?
Explanation
Correct answer B: Unchanged risk, expectations and reinvestment opportunities.
Historical realised-yield approach is conditional, not guaranteed forecast.
FM-C04-T016 · 2 marksD0=3, retention 40%, reinvestment return 15%, price 60. Ke via stable growth?
Explanation
Correct answer D: 11.3%.
g 6%; D1=3.18; 3.18/60+.06.
FM-C04-T017 · 2 marksRf 5%, premium 8%; beta changes 1.1 to 1.4. Required-return change?
Explanation
Correct answer D: 2.4 percentage points.
(.3)x 8%=2.4 points.
FM-C04-T018 · 2 marksMarket equity 100 allocated 60/40 between paid-up/retained costs 14%/12%; debt 50 cost 6%. WACC?
Explanation
Correct answer D: 10.8%.
(8.4+4.8+3)/150.
FM-C04-T019 · 2 marksD1=4, price 100, g 6%; CAPM Rf 5%, Rm 11%, beta 1.2. Dividend growth versus CAPM?
Explanation
Correct answer C: 10% versus 12.2%, based on different assumptions.
D1/P+g=10%; CAPM 5+1.2 x 6=12.2%.
FM-C04-T020 · 2 marksFor marginal financing, which weights apply when target proportions are explicitly supplied?
Explanation
Correct answer B: Intended proportions of new funds.
MCC uses supplied marginal funding proportions.
FM-C04-T021 · 2 marksAnnual coupon 10% on face 100, net proceeds 95. Coupon equals financing cost necessarily?
Explanation
Correct answer C: No; proceeds, tax and redemption timing can differ.
Coupon is not the whole relevant return measure.
FM-C04-T022 · 2 marksSemiannual case gross coupon 5, tax 30%, principal 100 redeemed after 4 half years. Final net payment?
Explanation
Correct answer D: Rs 103.50.
Final coupon 3.5 plus principal 100.
FM-C04-T023 · 2 marksTwo conversion shares forecast 45 each versus redemption 100. Higher-value terminal convention?
Explanation
Correct answer C: 100, before final coupon.
max(90, 100)=100.
FM-C04-T024 · 2 marksD1=5, price 50, g 12%. Ke derived from D1/P+g?
Explanation
Correct answer A: 22%.
5/50+.12=.22; forecast conditional.
FM-C04-T025 · 2 marksHypothetical perpetual preference formula establishes current permission to issue such shares?
Explanation
Correct answer B: No, mathematical cost is not an issuance-law verification.
Case terms and legal availability are separate.
FM-C04-T026 · 2 marks30 lakh at 9.6% plus 10 lakh at 10.8%. Average cost of 40 lakh?
Explanation
Correct answer D: 9.9%.
(30 x.096+10 x.108)/40.
FM-C04-T027 · 2 marksDebt limit 15 at weight 50%, retention 20 at weight 50%. First total funding break?
Explanation
Correct answer A: 30 lakh debt tier, then 40 lakh retention.
15/.5=30; 20/.5=40.
FM-C04-T028 · 2 marksNominal cost is applied to real project cash flows without adjustment. What is needed?
Explanation
Correct answer D: Consistent inflation, currency and timing conventions.
Match rate and cash-flow definitions.
FM-C04-T029 · 2 marksCompany has cash but retained earnings cost is claimed zero. Relevant correction?
Explanation
Correct answer B: Internal funds still have shareholder opportunity cost.
Resource existence does not remove required return or prove cash availability.
FM-C04-T030 · 2 marksNumerical IRR root solves PV against net proceeds. What verifies computation?
Explanation
Correct answer C: Near-zero NPV residual using the stated flows and periods.
Independent residual checks validate scheduled-flow equation.